My grand father had two acres of property.Before he passed away he split the property in half giving me half and his son half ( my uncle) ba...

Question

My grand father had two acres of property.Before he passed away he split the property in half giving me half and his son half ( my uncle) back in 1972.This year my uncle decided to sell his half.We both have deeds to our property.I lived there for ten years and bought another house and have rented the mobile home on the property for over 30 years.We each have a 12 foot drive way to our property.This week my uncle informed me my deed is wrong and in order for him to sell his property there has to be a 50 foot drive way between us and it comes off my side .Says after having a mobile home on my property fo 40 years I have to move it because of the 50 ft. drive way.there is no other driveway mentioned in either deed.My question is,can he just decide to take 50 ft.of my property.Is there some hidden law I am not seeing.I know this sounds like theres something I am leaving out,but Im not.He has a buyer who has signed a contract this week.to include 50 ft.of my property.My grandfather had property surveyed in 1972.is this possible?

Answer

Unless a new survey has been done which clearly supports your uncle's claims,

the transaction which he now proposes could be subject to legal challenge. (And, if such has not occurred, you yourself should immediately undertake to have a new such survey completed.)