I ran 2 toll booths in chicago in 2008,now they r saying they r suing me ,pay now or they will garnish my wages.im alsoa michigan res.
Answer
ok. sounds right.
I ran 2 toll booths in chicago in 2008,now they r saying they r suing me ,pay now or they will garnish my wages.im alsoa michigan res.
ok. sounds right.
i live on private road contractor building house 2 lots down road will not clear road in front of his property is there a law on this road is 30 feet wide
It all depends. A private road, by definitition is a private road. You should check any documents you may have, when you purchased the property, in regards to use of the private road.
I'm on F-1 visa, only have one class left to graduate, I got charged with a drug possession, I went into the diversion program, two weeks after I started the program, I had to go back home to visit, my program officer gave me permission to go visit for two weeks, my question is, will I be denied entry because of the charge?
Additional information
it's a minor misdemeanor, I've had a DUI case before that was dismissed.
I'm using the same visa and I-20 I had used before
Were you granted advance parole to travel? What was the result of the diversion program? Do you have a chance to have the drug possession charge dismissed? If you were granted permission to leave and you successfully completed diversion, you should be granted re-entry.
I had a credit card when I just turned 18. I was not good with finances back then. The collections started in 2001. It went on my credit report in 2002 - As of today, 6/17/2011 I checked my credit report with all 3 bureaus - this debt is no longer showing on my credit report. Is it legal for them to still come after me for this debt or is there some type of statute of limitations? Can they place this back on my credit report?
It was a credit card with a $300 limit - that is now in collections for over $2000!!! What is my next step? I am in the process of cleaning up my debt, I don't want things to resurface.
Thanks
Based on the information you provided, the statute of limitations should have expired. A debt collector is permitted to attempt to collect an expired debt but would violated the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act if (1) it sued on the debt or (2) represented that failure to pay could result in a lawsuit. I regularly represent consumers with claims against debt collectors. I would be happy to review your situation. As most attorneys who practice in this area, I would review your situation without charge. Please contact me. My contact information is on www.PhilipStern.com.
I'm going through a 26 year divorce if my husband wants to buy me out of our home and I dont want my name on the loan will the judge make him refin it in his name so my name won't on the loan anymore.
In a dissolution of marriage in California, the judge's duty is to (1) make sure the assets and the liabilities of the divorcing couple are divided as equally as possible, but also (2) to modify this equal-division formula to the extent the divorcing couple is able to agree to a not-so-equal split of the community assets and liabilities. The "assets" to be divided would include the home, and the "liabilities" would include the loan.
Taking a co-borrower's name off a loan will require either refinancing with a new loan or a modification to the existing loan. The latter possibility should be discussed with the holder of the note; it may not be as difficult or expensive as one might think; however, now is also a very good time to refinance (at least for most properties). Also, if you have been married for 26 years, there's a good possibility you have a substantial amount of equity.
Most California counties have very helpful counseling services connected with their Family Law court departments that can provide practical suggestions based on the numbers in each situation, which may be a better resource than general answers based on legal theory.
The judge can order him to, but if he does not qualify the judge can't make him. Therefore it is a good idea to prequalify the buying spouse based on post-divorce numbers and put detailed terms and timelines about what APR etc. the loan will be made under. So that the buying spouse can be held in contempt if they then fail to refi on the agreed terms or better.
My daughter and her ex have joint custody of the two girls.The dad has primary but the girls have been living with the mother for 3 years and the dad don't really have anything to do with the girls except a phone call once in a while. Any way my daughter went to court to get primary but when the ex was served in was invaild so the judge gave her primary custody for 30 days. She had him served again the right way but the 30 days have past and she is now waiting for a new court date. But here is the problem, they just found out that one of the kids (10)yrs old has A.D.D. and the dad refuses to let her go on the medication . Can he stop the mother from giving the meds to her?
If under the terms of the separation agreement the parties must agree on medical treatment, then she should file a motion for temporary orders and ask the Judge to order that the child receives the medicine. If the agreement does not require such an agreement of the parties, then the mother can give consent and give the child the medication. If this goes before a Judge, your daughter will need to bring a full set of medical records to court.
Attorney Pransky's advice is absolutely correct
my mother has had a minor stroke which has affected her speech center. She can neither speak coherently nor write. There is an existing notarized power of attorney form with me as attorney-in-fact. how do i activate it so that I can pay her bills via her checking account?
Assuming that your mother lives in North Carolina and that the power of attorney is here, you need to register it at the recorder of deeds. You also need to read the power of attorney. If properly drafted, you should not have to file it with the clerk of court, but if it does not contain language about this, then you must also file a copy with the clerk of court to use it. If you file with the clerk of court, you may added requirements to file an annual accounting.
Even if you don't, its a good idea to start a ledger or journal for your mother's property. In there, you will record what assets your mother has (whether it is land, rental income or other income from a pension or Social Security). You will also record every expenditure you make on behalf of your mother. You especially want to keep good records if there is ever any question by a sibling or relative or anyone else.
Is it lawful to apply for a financial loan for someone else using your power of attorney papers?
Not if you disclose your agency (i.e., disclose to the lender that you are an agent acting on someone else's behalf) and so long as the loan is for the benefit of person who gave you the power of attorney, not your benefit or someone else's benefit. As an agent, you have what is called a "fiduciary duty" to always act in their best interests. Breaching that fiduciary by putting your interests or someone else's interest before theirs is actionable and illegal. Also, the power of attorney would have to grant you that authority to borrow money for them. Powers of attorney can be general or limited. Most general powers of attorney would grant you that power, but you should read the document first to make sure that you do have that authority. Acting beyond the scope of the power of attorney can also be actionable. If you are unsure, ask a lawyer to look over the document and to consult with you before you act.
I just realized that I misread your question. I thought you asked if it was UNLAWFUL. You asked if it was LAWFUL. Yes, it is lawful and legal to sign loan documents for them, so long as you disclose your agency, the loan is for them, and your POA grants that authority, as discussed in my original answer. Sorry. I hope that the "no" at the beginning, rather than a "yes" didn't throw you off too much.
Verbel agreement for $10,000 to ex boyfriend in 2007 would it still be good to go after him for
Only if he defaults, or represents himself and does not have an attorney. Verbal contracts are governed by a 2 year statute of limitations in California. The statute begins running when the contract is breached. I'm not sure what the exact payment terms were, but I hope that you have some proof, other than the verbal part.
I have a family friend (not related to me) who has passed, and he had no kids, or wife. The only person related to him is a brother who lives in Europe. His brother will not come here to do any inheriting because of his poor English. The person who passed completely owned his property. Is there anyway I could probate the property to his brothers name by getting him paperwork and in the process also get some of the property? essentially being a middleman for his brother, but negotiate to receive some of the property or value.
Probate must be opened and a personal representative must be appointed. The personal representative can get compensation as allowed under the estate agreements or as allowed under probate law.
Your friend needs to retain an attorney in Colorado to proceed with the probate. Assuming there are no estate documents, you could propose that you are appointed and make clear your proposed compensation. That can then be approved by the court. You cannot advise this brother on probate matters or law at all or you are breaking the law (unless you are licensed attorney). You cannot probate this at all.
We handle probate cases like this and could assist you. You can receive a reasonable amount of compensation for your time as personal representative, but you could not be paid as an attorney or the like to probate the estate since you would then be practicing law without a license.